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Mortgage - adverse possession |
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If a borrower defaults on the mortgage, can he argue that adverse
possession prevents the mortgagee from subsequently claiming
possession of the land?
According to the CA, the answer is ‘yes’. This was confirmed in a recent
case where NatWest had made a mortgage loan on a house. The
borrowers defaulted, and the bank made formal demands, with the
borrowers making some payments. One of the borrowers became
bankrupt, and although correspondence took place, no further payments
were made and the bank did not issue proceedings. After 12 years, the
trustee in bankruptcy was able to get a declaration that the bank’s
mortgage was no longer valid, because adverse possession applied. The
logic behind this was that the borrowers were in adverse possession
once they had made the last payment to the bank. NatWest had failed
for more than 12 years to protect its security (ie take steps to enforce
it, or to get some payment from the borrowers). They had not impliedly
granted the borrowers permission to stay in the property, and the reality
– in the CA’s view – was that the borrowers had been in adverse
possession.
The moral for banks is, of course, not to allow proceedings to be delayed
for so long. They should in any event protect their position by trying to get
some part payment (since time then starts anew). To an extent, they can
also help protect their position by ensuring that mortgage documentation
makes it clear that the right to possession depends upon their default
(to avoid any argument that the 12-year period starts from the date the
mortgage is granted); at the same time, if a borrower is in default, it
may be worth the lender giving the borrower express permission to
remain in the property (since that might be of some evidential help in
deciding if it is ‘adverse possession’). National Westminster v Ashe [2008] EWCA Civ 55. Source:
www.practicallaw.com (subscription service).
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April 2008 |