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Suppose L has a charge over a rent deposit (ie money is given to L to deposit in a separate account in L’s bank, but the money is declared as belonging to T, and is charged by T to L). If L then assigns its reversion, and the new L moves the rent deposit money into an account at its new bank, is it necessary for there to be a new charge in favour of the new holder of the reversion? In practice, this rarely happens and assignee Ls will simply open the new deposit account, and will not bother to take a new charge nor register it at Companies House.
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